INDIAN CONSTITUTION TEST PAPER - IV

INDIAN CONSTITUTION TEST PAPER - IV

1. Which among the following amendments, curtailed the power of Judicial Review enjoyed by the Supreme Court?

a) 24^th Amendment              b) 42^nd Amendment             c) 44^th Amendment              d) 15^th Amendment

 

2. Which among the following subjects, is contained in the concurrent List?

a) Education              b) Fisheries             c) Agriculture             d) Police

 

3. In the division of powers under the Constitution, who has been given more powers?

a) The Centre

b) The States

c) Both the States and the Centre enjoy equal powers

 

4. The theory of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme court in

a) Golak Nath Case

b) Keshavananda Bharati Case

c) Gopalan Vs. State of Madras

d) Shyam Prasad Mukherjee Case

 

5. In which part of the Constitution is the State enjoined to establish Panchayati Raj institutions?

a) Directive Principles

b) Fundamental Rights

c) Preamble

d) Fundamental Duties

 

6. Which one of the following is charged to the Consolidated Fund of India and can be spent without authorization by Parliament?

a) Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable

b) Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court

c) Salary and allowances of the President

d) (a), (b) and (c) above

 

7. According to the Supreme Court, the goal of Indian Socialism is a 'blend of……….and…………., learning heavily towards Gandhian Socialism'.

a) Marxism and Leninism                b) Leninism and Gandhism

c) Marxism and Gandhism              d) Nehruism and Gandhism

 

8. The quorum of a Legislative Council

a) twenty five

b) one-tenth of its membership or ten, whichever is greater

c) one-fourth of its membership

d) one-fourth of its membership or ten

d) one-fourth of its membership or ten

 

9. The maximum permitted representation of any one State in the Rajya Sabha is

a) 32             b) 35             c) 39             d) 48

 

10. To whom, among the following groups, is the Right against exploitation guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?

a) Children             b) Dalits             c) Tribals             d) Women

 

11. The procedure for resolving a disagreement between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is

a) a joint sitting of the two houses, on a directive from the President

b) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha

c) Setting up of a Joint Select Committee

d) Setting up of an Adjudication Committee

 

12. Which among the following countries, has a Unitary system of Government?

a) China             b) USA             c) United Kingdom             d) France

 

13. The Constitution (43^rd Amendment) Act

a) ensured Press Freedom

b) removed the right to property from the Constitution

c) restored to the Supreme Court and High Courts the power to consider the Constitutional validity of Central or State Laws

d) placed severe limitations on the Government's power to proclaim internal emergency

 

14. The Constitution in a federation can be amended by the

a) Centre alone

b( Centre with the consent of the States

c) States alone

d) Judiciary

 

15. The Spekaer of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by a resolution of the House, provided at least………….notice has been give of the intention to move the resolution.

a) 30 days              b) 14 days             c) 45 days             d) 60 days

 

16. A Constitution is said to be flexible if

a) it can be amended by ordinary law and procedure

b) It can be amended by a difficult process

c) it can be amended by a court of law

d) there is no amendment procedure

 

17. The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for funds mainly on

a) local tax              b) government finances

c) property tax         d) special taxes

 

18. The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution enumerates the

a) Fundamental Rights

b) official languages of India

c) laws placed beyond the jurisdiction of courts

d) Fundamental Duties

 

19. The first Independence Day (15^th August 1947) fell on a

a) Wednesday             b) Thursday              c) Friday              d) Saturday

 

20. The expression 'Justice' in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution is used

a) to indicate economic and political justice

b) to indicate equality of status and opportunity

d) in the same of absolute justice

 

21. The Union Territories get representation

a) in the Lok Sabha but not in the Rajya Sabha

b) in the Rajya Sabha but not in the Lok Sabha

c) in both the Houses of Parliament

d) neither in the Lok Sabha nor in the Rajya Sabha

 

22. In the Republic of India,

a) the President is supreme as he is the Head of the State, the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces and all the Executive power is vested in him

b) Parliament is supreme as it can even amend the Constitution.

c) the Supreme Court is supreme as it has the ultimate say in interpreting what the Constitution is

d) the Constitution is supreme as it controls all the three wings, viz. the executive, the legislature and the judiciary.

 

23. A person accused of an offence wants to engage a counsel of his choice for his defence. According to the provisions of the Indian Constitution.

a) he is not entitled as of right of engage a counsel of his choice.

b) he can engage only a counsel approved by the court.

c) he has a Constitutional right to engage a counsel of his choice

d) he can engage his own counsel who must be approved by the court.

 

24. Which date is referred to in the Indian Constitution as the date of its commencement?

a) 26.11.1949             b) 26.01.1950             c) 15.08.1948             d) 01.01.1949

 

25. The drastic impact of the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976 was

a) it narrowed down and fettered the scope for judicial review of ordinary laws

b) it devalued the Fundamental Rights vis-à-vis the Directive Principles

c) if effectively obviated the possibility of judicial review of any Act of amendment of the Constitution

d) It unsettled the original balance between the difference organs of the State

e) All the four above

 

26. Article 351 enjoins on the Government to secure the enrichment of Hindi by drawing on

a) English              b) Urdu             c) Sanskrit              d) Tamil

 

27. A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is held

a) when a bill passed by one House is rejected by the other

c) when there is some disagreement over any provision of or amendment to a bill.

c) when a period of six months elapses from the date of receipt of a bill passed by one House without its being passed by the other

d) under all the three circumstances stated above

 

28. A joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament is summoned by the

a) President              b) Vice President              c) Speaker              d) Law Minister

 

29. A joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament is presided over by the

a) President

b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

c) Speaker

d) Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

 

30. The election of the President of India can be set aside under Art.

a) 71            b) 75              c) 12              d) 21

 

31. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the other House, in matters relating to

a) election and impeachment of the President

b) election and removal of the Vice-President

c) removal of Supreme Court Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

d) approval of Proclamation of Emergencies

e) all these matters

 

32. ………….. is the official language of Nagaland.

a) Ao                b) Sema             c) English                  d) Angami

 

33. A High Court for a Union Territory may be constituted by ………

a) President

b) Union Parliament

c) Supreme Court of India

d) Union Law Ministry

 

34. Which among the following statements, relating to the Attorney-General for India, is not true?

a) He represents Government in any reference made by the President under Article 143.

b) His consent is necessary for initiating proceedings for contempt, in certain cases.

c) His consent is necessary for finalization of appointments of Judges to State High Courts.

d) He appears in courts of law on behalf of the Houses of Parliament or the Speaker.

 

35. In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by

a) a Solicitor-General

b) a Solicitor-General and an Additional Solicitor General

c) a Solicitor General and two Additional Solicitors General

d) none

 

36. The main sources of law in India are

a) the Constitution          b) legislation          c) case law         d) customary law         e) all the four above

 

37. The Speaker can resign his office by addressing his letter of resignation to the

a) President

b) Vice President

c) Prime Minister

d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

 

38. Who among the following former Presidents of India, was a Trade Union Leader in his younger days?

a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

b) V.V. Giri

c) Dr. Zakir Husain

d) F.A. Ahmed

 

39. The………has the final power to maintain order within the House of the People.

a) Marshal of the House

b) Prime Minister

c) Speaker

d) Chief of Security Staff

 

40. The right to prorogue the two Houses of Parliament rests with the

a) President

b) Prime Minister

c) Union Council of Ministers

d) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs

 

41. The judges of the Supreme Court of India are appointed by the

a) Chief Justice of India in consultation with the Prime Minister

b) President in consultation with the two Houses of Parliament

c) President

d) Prime Minister on the advice of the Chief Justice of India

 

42. The supreme judicial tribunal of a State is the

a) High Court

b) Chief Presidency Magistrate's Court

c) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate's Court

d) Supreme Court

 

43. The Chief Justice of India has the power to request a retired Supreme Court Judge to

a) act as a Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period

b) act as the Chief Justice of a State High Court

c) take over from him as temporary Chief Justice

d) serve as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court

 

44. In a federal system of government, powers are divided between the Centre and the States by

a) the Constitution

b) a mutual agreement between the Centre and the States

c) Union Parliament

d) the Supreme Court

 

45. One-half of the members of a Public Service Commission will be persons who have held office………for at least ten years.

a) under the Government of India

b) under a State

c) under the Government of India or f a State

d) as Judges of a High Court

 

46. A member of a Joint Service Commission shall address his letter of resignation to the

a) President

b) Governor

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) Chairman of the U.P.S.C

 

47. The function of a Public Service Commission in India is

a) advisory              b) mandatory              c) neither              d) both

 

48. The only authority for pardoning a sentence of death is the

a) President

b) Chief Justice of India

c) Special Bench of the Supreme Court

d) Prime Minister

 

49. The……….has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations fixing the number of members of the Union Public Service Commission

a) Home Ministry

b) President

c) Cabinet Secretary

d) Vice-President

 

50. The…….has the Constitutional authority to make rules regarding the manner of enforcing the orders of the Supreme Court

a) Chief Justice of India

b) Attorney General for India

c) President

d) Union Law Minister

 

51. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet?

a) Cabinet Ministers

b) Ministers of State

c) Deputy Ministers

d) President

 

52. The rank of the different Ministers is determined by the

a) President

b) Prime Minister

c) Cabinet Secretary

d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

 

53. The Vice President of India is eligible for re-election by a

a) Constitutional provision

b) convention

c) consensus

d) Supreme court judgement

 

54. We should adopt a convention that no person shall be President for more than two terms, and that no amendment of the Constitution is necessary to enjoin this'. Whose words are these?

a) C. Rajagopalachari

b) J.B. Kriplani

c) Jawaharlal Nehru

d) Mahatma Gandhi

 

55. According to the Table of Precedence followed by the Union Government, former Presidents have been accorded the………place.

a) 3rd              b) 47th              c) 5th              d) 2nd

 

56. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President?

a) District and Sessions Judges

b) High Court Judges

c) Supreme Court Judges

d) Attorney General for India

 

57. The power to extend and /or restrict the jurisdiction of a High Court vests with the

a) Union Parliament

b) Supreme Court of India

c) President

d) State legislature/s concerned

 

58. A retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can resume practice in

a) the Supreme Court

b) the High Court of his choice

c) the District Courts

d) no court in the territory of the Union

 

59. In the case of a stalemate over a Bill in a joint sitting of Parliament, the power to cast the deciding vote lies with the

a) Prime Minister

b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

c) Union Law Minister

d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

 

60. The U.S.A has almost……………times the area of India and………….of its population.

a) three; one-third

b) four; one-half

c) five; one-fourth

d) six; one-fifth

 

61. The first citizen of India is the

a) Prime Minister of India

b) President of India

c) Chief of the Army Staff

d) Chief Justice of India

 

62. June 25, 1975 was a significant date in the history of the nation, because

a) Emergency was clamped on the nation on this date

b) it was the date of death of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru

c) the Indian Rupee was devalued on that day.

d) the Tashkent agreement was signed on that day.

 

63. The chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament is appointed by the

a) Prime Minister

b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

c) President

d) Union Finance Minister

 

64. The Sarkaria Commission has laid down certain guidelines for appointment of Governors. Find the 'odd man' out:

a) The appointee should be eminent in some walk of life

b) He should have travelled extensively in and out of India

c) He should not be too closely connected with the politics of the State where he is to be posted

d) A politician from the ruling party at the Centre should not be appointed to a State run by a different party.

 

65. Development of the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform is a

a) fundamental right

b) fundamental duty

c) directive principle of State policy

d) none of these

 

66. Which among the following does not figure in the Preamble to the Constitution?

a) Sovereignty

b) Socialism

c) Secularism

d) Federalism

 

67. The Indian Constitution provides that the three constituents of the Union Parliament are the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the

a) Prime Minister

b) President

c) Vice President

d) Union Council of Ministers

 

68. Fundamental Duties are duties of

a) the Government towards society

b) the State towards citizens

c) citizens towards society and fellow citizens

d) citizens and the State

 

69. The President of India

a) cannot be removed from his office after his election

b) can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Union Council of Ministers.

c) can be removed from office only by a special procedure.

d) can be removed from office through a motion of no–confidence passed by the Lok Sabha

 

70. Who, among the following past Presidents, was earlier Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

b) V.V. Giri

c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

INDIAN CONSTITUTION TEST PAPER III

 

INDIAN CONSTITUTION TEST PAPER III

1. Which among the following, has not been included in the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?

a) Sanskrit

b) Sindhi

c) Urdu

d) English

 

2. Which of the following houses is presided over by a non-member?

a) Lok Sabha

b) Rajya Sabha

c) Vidhan Sabha

d) Vidhan Parishad

 

3. The members of the Vidhan Sabha in Indian States are

a) directly elected

b) indirectly elected

c) appointed by the Governor

d) nominated by the President

 

4. For the Union Territories, which have no legislatures of their own, laws are enacted by the

a) President

b) Union Law Ministry

c) Union Parliament

d) Supreme Court of India

 

5. ………….. was decorated with the highest State awards by both India (Bharat Ratna) and Pakistan (Nishan-e-Pakistan).

a) Morarji Desai

b) Jawaharlal Nehru

c) Indira Gandhi

d) Lal Bahadur Shastri

 

6. The two States which abolished their Legislative Councils in 1969 were:

a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

b) Andhra Pradesh and Bihar

c) Punjab and West Bengal

d) Haryana and Punjab

 

7. Which country, among the following has a tricolor flag?

a) U.K.

b) France

c) China

d) USA

 

8. The Constitution has provided that the only Articles which would apply of their own force to Jammu and Kashmir are Articles

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 370

 

9. The first Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir was

a) Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah

b) Maharaja Sir Hari Singh

c) Yuvaraj Karan Singh

d) Dr. Farooq Abdullah

 

10. The official language of the Jammu and Kashmir State is

a) English

b) Urdu

c) Hindi

d) Hindustani

 

11. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from the

a) Kathopanishad

b) Isavasya Upanishad

c) Mundaka Upanishad

d) Kenopanishad

 

12. A State Legislative Council can delay the enactment of an ordinary law for a maximum period of

a) 4 months

b) 3 months

c) 6 months

d) 1 year

 

13. Appointment of District Judges in a State shall be made by the

a) Governor of the State 

b) Governor of the State in consultation with the High court of the State

c) State Public Service Commission

D) State Chief Secretary

 

14. Rajya Sabha is considered to be a permanent House because

a) its members never retire

b) the House is never dissolved

c) one-third of its members retire after every 2 years

d) one-fourth of its members retire after every 3 years

 

15. The minimum age to qualify for membership of the Rajya Sabha is

a) 21 years

b) 25 years

c) 30 years

d) 35 years

 

16. According to Article 24, no child below the age of ………… years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine.

a) 12

b) 13

c) 14

d) 15

 

17. It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information as the President may call for, in terms of Article

a) 75

b) 78

c) 79

d) 180

 

18. State Assembly elections are conducted by the

a) Chief Secretary of the State concerned

b) Chief Election Commissioner

c) Governor of the State concerned

d) Chief Minister of the State concerned

 

19. A minister, who is not a member of the State Legislative Assembly, is required to secure the people's verdict in his favour in a by-election within

a) two months

b) three months

c) six months

d) one year

 

20. How long can be remain a Prime Minister, even without being a member of eight House of Parliament?

a) three months

b) six months

c) nine months

d) one year

 

21. By convention, the Governor of a State generally belongs to

a) the same State

b) some other State

c) the IAS cadre

d) the same zone

 

22. Which one of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?

a) Habeas Corpus

b) Writ of Mandamus

c) Writ of Certiorari

d) Quo Warranto

 

23. The financial power/s enjoyed by the President of India are/is

a) He can authorize advance of moneys out of the Contingency Fund.

b) He can recommend introduction of certain money bills in Parliament

c) He can appoint a Finance Commission to study and recommend distribution of tax resources between States

d) All the three above

 

24. The Election Commission enjoys

a) a constitutional basis

b) a statutory basis

c) an extra-constitutional basis

d) no constitutional or statutory basis

 

25. The name 'Mysore' was changed to 'Karnatqaka' on

a) November 1, 1972

b) November 1, 1970

c) November 1, 1973

d) August 15, 1973

 

26. The special status of Jammu & Kashmir implies that the State has

a) a separate Constitution

b) separate defence forces

c) a separate judiciary

d) all the three above

 

27. The Vice-President is a member of

a) the Rajya Sabha

b) the Lok Sabha

c) neither House

d) both the Houses

 

28. The authority to dissolve a State Legislative Assembly is vested in the

a) Chief Minister of the State

b) Speaker of the State Assembly

c) President of India

d) Governor of the State

 

29. Which among the following countries, has a Presidential form of Government?

a) India

b) United Kingdom

c) U.S.A.

d) Switzerland

 

30. The first State in India to be formed on a linguistic basic was

a) Maharashtra

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Karnataka

 

31. A hapless tribal woman of Assam sends a telegram to the Supreme Court that the State police have confined her to unlawful custody. Which of the following writs shall be issuable by the Supreme court to provide a suitable remedy to her?

a) Certiorari

b) Habeas Corpus

c) Quo Warranto

d) Mandamus

 

32. Who acted as the President of India when Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed died in office on 11.02.1977?

a) N. Sanjeeva Reddy

b) B.D. Jatti

c) Giani Zail Singh

d) M. Hidayatullah

 

33. The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is ……..years.

a) four

b) five

c) six

d) three

 

34. In a Constitutional monarchy, the real power is enjoyed by the

a) King

b) Council of Ministers

c) Upper House of Parliament

d) Lower House of Parliament

 

35. The concept of Constitution first originated in

a) Britain

b) Japan

c) USA

d) Switzerland

 

36. The parliamentary form of Government first evolved in

a) Britain

b) Greece

c) France

d) Switzerland

 

37. The Cabinet system of Government first evolved in

a) Greece

b) Britain

c) Canada

d) USA

 

38. The Constitution of India describes India as a Union of States which means that the

a) States have no right to secede from the Federation

b) States have a right to secede from the Federation

b) States have a right to secede from the Federation

c) States have been given more powers

d) Centre cannot alter the independence existence of the States

 

39. The procedure for the amendment of our Constitution is identical to the procedure for amendment outlined in the Constitution of

a) Canada

b) United Kingdom

c) USA

d) None of these

 

40. India is known as a secular state because

a) it is anti religious

b) it has been so described in the Preamble to the Constitution

c) the Constitution is silent on an official religion

d) its Constitution forbids any discrimination on the basis of religion

 

41. The President of India has the power to take over the administration of a State Government cannot be carried on, according to the provisions of

a) Article 320

b) Article 350

c) Article 356

d) Article 365

 

42. Certain articles of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament like an ordinary law. Which among the following, cannot be amended by this method?

a) Articles dealing with the creation of new States

b) Articles dealing with the election and manner of election of the President

c) Articles dealing with the official language of the Union and the States

d) Provisions dealing with the quorum in Parliament

 

43. The fundamental right, which permits Indian citizens free discussion and exchange of views, including the freedom of the Press, is the right to

a) form Associations and Unions

b) assemble peacefully and without arms

c) freedom of speech and expression

d) worship

 

44. Which one of the following statements is true?

a) Right to property is a natural right

b) Right to property needs the backing of society

c) Right to property needs no sanction of society.

d) Right to private property is absolute

 

45. The Constitution describes India as a

a) federation of Independent States

b) Union of States

c) Quasi-federation

d) Dominion of free States

 

46. The first woman to become the Speaker of a State Assembly in India was

a) Vijaylakshmi Pandit

b) Shanno Devi

c) Sucheta Kripalani

d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur

 

47. In terms of the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by

a) children born of Indian citizens abroad

b) children of diplomatic personnel born in India on or after January 26, 1950

c) a woman who is or has been married to a citizen of India

d) persons of Indians origin who are ordinarily resident in any country or place outside divided India

 

48. The Supreme court of India has no original jurisdiction in the settlement of disputes

a) between the Government of India and any State of the Union

b) between two or more States

c) between the Government of India and one State, on the one hand, and other States on the other

 

49. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn from

a) Home Ministry grants

b) Consolidated Fund of India

c) Parliamentary grants

d) Contingency Fund of India

 

50. The salaries of Judges of the Supreme Court can be reduced during their term of office

a) if an when the President directs

b) under no circumstances

c) when there is a Financial Emergency

d) when there is a Financial Emergency

d) if the Parliamentary passes a bill to this effect

 

 

POLITY TEST PAPER FOR IAS, PCS, CDS & SSC

POLITY TEST PAPER FOR IAS, PCS, CDS & SSC

1. The term Globalization was coined by

a) Robertson

b) Kaplan

c) Burton

d) Spiro

2. WTO's headquarter is at

a) Paris

b) London

c) Geneva

d) New York

3. WTO was the outcome of

a) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

b) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs

c) General Agreement on Trade in Services

d) General Agreement on Trade-related Aspects

4. WTO came to be established in

a) 1995

b) 1996

c) 1997

d) 1998

5. The European Union (EU) was established in

a) 1992

b) 1993

c) 1994

d) 1995

6. EU does not resemble like

a) a federation to promote trade, environmental, social economic policy.

b) a confederation to protect home affairs.

c) a nation-state to promote national interest

d) an international organization to take care of foreign affairs.

7. EU does not have

a) a common trade policy

b) a common agricultural policy

c) a common national policy

d) a common fisheries policy

8. Which of the following is not the institution of EU?

a) European Cabinet

b) European Parliament

c) European Commission

d) European Council

9. Put the following treaties in chronological order which led for the function of EU

1. Treaty of Rome

2. Treaty of Maastricht

3. Treaty of Paris

4. Merger Treaty

a) 3, 1, 4, 2

b) 1, 3, 2, 4

c) 4, 2, 3, 1

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

10. ASEAN was formed in

a) 1965

b) 1966

c) 1967

d) 1968

11. Which of the following was not the founding member of ASEAN?

a) Vietnam

b) Malaysia

c) Thailand

d) Indonesia

12. ASEAN Declaration, forming ASEAN is also known as

a) Singapore Declaration

b) Manila Declaration

c) Bangkok Declaration

d) Kuala Lumpur Declaration

13. ASEAN arose as a reaction against

a) European expansionism

b) Communist expansionism

c) Capitalists expansionism

d) American expansionism

14. Which is the latest additional member of SAARC?

a) Myanmar

b) Bangladesh

c) Afghanistan

d) Iran

15. What is the alternative of Gandhian socialism?

a) Sarvodaya

b) Trusteeship

c) Swadeshi

d) Ramarajya

16. Burke favoured the

a) French Revolution

b) English Revolution

c) American Revolution

d) Prussian Revolution

17. "There are crimes in the society, therefore there is a state." Who said it?

a) Bentham

b) Spencer

c) Locke

d) Gandhi

18. 'Kinship creates society and society creates state'. Who said it?

a) Laski

b) Maclver

c) Marx

d) Lenin

19. Which of the following makes the English Constitution unique?

a) A large number of rules based solely on conventions

b) The fact that no act has a higher degree of authority than a simple act of Parliament

c) Responsiveness of the government to public opinion

d) Constitutional Monarchy

20. Consider the following statements about the Constitution of UK

1. UK has a unitary Constitution

2. Parliament is sovereign in UK

3. UK has a system of judicial review

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 1 only

21. The House of Lords does not have the following types of peers.

a) hereditary

b) elective

c) life

d) clergy

22. The characteristic features of the British Constitution are

a) unitary, presidential, flexible

b) unitary, parliamentary, flexible

c) flexible, parliamentary, federal

d) parliamentary, federal rigid

23. Britain is a land of

a) elections

b) conventions

c) statutes

d) kangaroos

24. Who is known as the first Prime Minister of England?

a) Disraelli

b) Palmerston

c) Walpole

d) Pitt, the Younger

25. In the USA the filibustering is a method used by

a) the Congress to pressurize the President

b) the President to prevent the introduction of a Bill in the Congress

c) members of the Senate to obstruct the passage of a Bill

d) judiciary to prevent Congress from passing a Bill

26. Which of the following combination characterizes the features of the US constitution?

a) Republic, federal, democratic

b) Democratic, unitary, republic

c) Federal, monarchical, democratic

d) Monarchical, unitary, unwritten

27. Which of the following has the powers to create the new states?

a) The US President

b) The US Congress

c) The state legislatures

d) The US Supreme Court

28. The German Chancellor is elected

a) directly by the people

b) by the Bundestrat (Upper House)

c) by the Bundestag (House of Representatives)

d) by both the Houses (Bundestrat and Bundestag)

29. The relationship between the government and the President in France is a complex one due to

a) direct election of the President

b) centralization of powers

c) a mixed presidential-parliamentary form of government

d) parliament's reduced powers to control the government

30. Which of the following characteristics are the combination of features in France?

a) Unitary, republic, parliamentary

b) Unitary, republic, presidential

c) Unitary, republic, parliamentary-presidential

d) Federal, republic, presidential

31. The French Constitution of the fifth Republic is

1. indivisible

2. secular

3. democratic

4. socialist

5. social

6. republic

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 69

c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

d) 3, 4, 5, 6, 1

32. The President of France is

a) elected  by the people through the majority of the votes cast.

b) elected by the people through the majority of the total votes

c) elected by the Senate and the National Assembly

d) elected by the Senate and the National Assembly

33. Which of the following are the features of SA Constitution?

a) Rigid, federal, presidential

b) Rigid, federal, parliamentary

c) Flexible, federal, presidential

d) Unitary, rigid, parliamentary

34. Which of the following is not true about People's Republic of China?

a) Mao Zedong established an autocratic socialist system in China.

b) Deng Xiaoping focused on market-oriented development

c) Living standard of the Chinese people has dramatically changes.

d) Political control is not as tight as before

35. Match List I with List II and select the correct code:

List I                                       List II

(A) Indian Constitution               1. 146 articles

(B) South Africa Constitution      2. 395 articles

(C) French Constitution              3. 243 articles

(D) German Constitution            4. 92 articles

Code:

            A             B             C             D

a)        2              3              1              4

b)        2              3              4              1

c)        2              4              3              1

d)        2              1              3              4

36. A was born in Nasik in 1920 and had gone to Chicago for study. He married Miss B, an American girl there and a son C was born to them in Boston in 1945. All of them came to Pune and continued to stay until the commencement of the Constitution and beyond. C acquired citizenship of India because

a) he was born in America before 1947

b) he was domiciled in India and was born of an Indian parent

c) he came to India in 1946 and stayed until the commencement of the Constitution

d) his mother B, though a foreigner, also came to India before the commencement of the Constitution.

37. The sequence in which the given terms are mentioned in the preamble to the Constitution of India is:

a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

b) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic

c) Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Republic

d) Sovereign, Democratic, Secular, Socialist, Republic

38. In the Constitution of India, the term 'Federal'

a) figures in the Preamble

b) figures in Part III of the Constitution

c) figures in Article 368

d) does not figure anywhere

39. Which of the following was the chairman of the committee on the Rules of procedure?

a) K.M. Munshi

b) Vallabhbhai Patel

c) Rajendra Prasad

d) H.C. Mookherjee

40. With regard to the sources of the Indian Constitution  match List I and List II

List I                                   List II

A. Britain                            1. Directive Principles

B. USA                              2. Parliamentary System

C. Union of South Africa      3. Concept of Fundamental Rights

D. Irish free State                4. Amending process

Code:

            A             B             C             D

a)        2              3              4              1

b)        2              3              1              4

c)        3              2              1              4

d)        4              1              2              3

41. Who had said that the preamble is the keynote to the Constitution?

a) K.M. Munshi

b) Ernest Barker

c) Thakur Das Bhargava

d) D.D. Basu

42. Which of the following group constituted the State Reorganization Commission?

a) Fazl Ali, Panikker, Kunzru

b) Kunzru, Katju, Dhar

c) Dhar, Fazl Ali, Pankkar

d) Panikkar, Fazl Ali, Katju

43. Who had described the Indian Constitution as a unitary state with subsidiary federal features?

a) Ivor Jennings

b) B.R. Ambedkar

c) G. Austin

d) K.C. Wheare

44. Which of the following declares India to be a federal state?

a) Golak Nath Case

b) Bommai Case

c) Shankari Prasad Case

d) Minerva Mills Case

45. The Basic Structure includes which of the following provisions?

1. Rule of Law

2. Federal polity

3. Parliamentary democracy

4. Citizenship provisions

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 2, 3, 4

46. Who describes the Indian federation as 'a cooperative federation'?

a) Granvile Austin

b) Sir Ivor Jennuings

c) K.C. Wheare

d) Alexandrowicz

47. Match List I with List II

List I                         List II

A. Union List             1. Forest

B. State List              2. Police

C. Concurrent            3. Banking

Code:

           A             B             C

a)        1              2              3

b)        3              2              1

d)        1              3              2

d)        2              3              1

48. Sarkaria Commission Report was officially received by the Government in

a) 1969

b) 1973

c) 1977

d) 1988

49. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

a) Fundamental Right

b) Constitutional Right

c) Natural Right

d) Legal Right

50. Which of the following freedoms is not guaranteed by Constitution of India?

a) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property

b) Freedom to move freely throughout the country

c) Freedom to assemble peaceful and without arms

d) Freedom to practise any trade or profession