CONSTITUTION AND POLITY CLAT PREVIOUS YEARS' SOLVED PAPERS
1. The Supreme Court of India upheld the decision to implement the
quota for other backward classes (OBCs) in higher educational
institutions. The court, however, excluded the "creamy layer" from
being a beneficiary. The reason is
(a) Creamy layer is not an OBC; it is a forward caste
(b) Creamy layer is politically powerful
(c) It can compete with others on equal footing
(d) the inclusion of creamy layer would be unjust.
2. Which of the following is considered as bulwark of personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto.
3. Article 1 of Indian Constitution defines India as
(a) Federal State
(b) Unitary
(c) Union of States
(d) Quasi-Federal State.
4. Which is the highest body that approves Five Years Plans in India?
(a) Parliament
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) Council of Ministers Council.
5. Affirmative action in Indian context signifies
(a) Providing security to weaker sections
(b) welfare measures to alleviate the sufferings of poor people
(c) Providing positive opportunities to deprived sections
(d) giving incentives to start industries.
6. Special Economic Zones are
(a) the places where industries can operate without any control
(b) the places where in any person can start any industry
(c) the places where Industries get certain tax advantages
(d) the places where in the national labour laws do not apply.
7. Right to travel is a fundamental right under
(a) Article 19 of the Constitution
(b) Article 21 of the Constitution
(c) Article 14 of the Constitution
(d) None of the above.
8. Legal aid for an accused is
(a) fundamental Right
(b) legal right
(c) Directive Principal of State Policy
(d) Discretion of State.
9. The members of Constituent Assembly who framed the Constitution were
(a) directly elected by the people
(b) indirectly elected
(c) nominated
(d) appointed by political parties.
10. Ambedkar acted in Constituent Assembly as
(a) President of the Assembly
(b) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(c) the leading spokesman of weaker sections
(d) a strong defender of fundamental rights.
11. In India, international treaties are ratified by
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) The Union Cabinet
12.It is a constitutional requirement that the Parliament shall meet at least
(a) twice in a year
(b) thrice in a year
(c) once in a year
(d) None of the above
13. Governor of a State can be removed by
(a) Impeachment by State Legislature
(b) the President
(c) by the State Cabinet
(d) the Union Government at the request of the Chief Minister.
14. Sovereignty under the Constitution belongs to
(a) the Parliament
(b) the people
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) the President along with Parliament.
15.The Supreme Court upheld Mandal Commission Report in
(a) Bommai v.Union of India
(b) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
(c) Unnikrishnan v. Union of India
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. Unoin of India.
16.Under our constitution, right to property is
(a) fundamental right
(b) basic structure of the Constitution
(c) Constitutional right
(d) a mere legal right.
17. Right to education emanates from
(a) right to culture and education under Article 29 and 30
(b) right to equality under Article 14
(c) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19
(d) right to life and personal liberty Under Article 21.
18. Lok Adalats have been created under
(a) Legal Services Authorities Act
(b) Arbitration and Conciliation Act
(c) Administration of Justice Act
(d) None of the above
19. The Indian Territory which fell under the states on the eve of
Independence was
(a) Only 20 percent
(b) Over 80 percent
(c) 54 percent
(d) 46 percent
20. The Supreme Court of India enjoys
(a) Only original jurisdiction
(b) Only appellate jurisdiction
(c) Only advisory jurisdiction
(d) All the above types of jurisdictions.
21. A money bill can be introduced in Parliament
(a) The Finance Minister alone
(b) Any minister
(c) Any member of Parliament
(d) Any member of the ruling party.
22. the most powerful legislature in the world is the
(a) Indian Parliament
(b) U.S. Congress
(c) Swiss Legislature
(d) British Parliament
23. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d) 1 and 3.
24.According to the Constitution, amendments cannot be proposed in
either House to
(a) The Annual Financial Statement
(b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Demand for Grants
(d) All of the above.
25. Which Article of our Constitution provides that the State shall
make effective position for securing right to work?
(a) Article 41
(b) Article 39
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 45.
26. Who of the following does not constitute an exception for
'equality before law' (Article 14)?
(a) The Foreign Diplomats
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Governor
(d) The President.
27. The Constitution of India describes India as
(a) A Quasi-Federal country
(b) Union of States
(c) A federation of States and Union territories
(d) None of the above
28.Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been the subject
of maximum litigation and controversies?
(a) Right to Property
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right to Freedom
29. The Fundamental Duties of the Indian Citizens
(a) Formed a part of the original Constitution
(b) were defined by the Parliament though a law enacted during the emergency.
(c) Were added by the Forty-Fourth Amendment
(d) Were defined by the Parliament though a law enacted during the emergency.
30.What is contained in the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(a) Forms of oath of affirmation
(b) Provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
(c) Items is respect of which Panchayats shall have powers and
authority to function as institutions of Self-Government
(d) Items on which Municipalities Shall have powers and authority to
function as institutions of Self Government.
31.The strength of the Council of Ministers
(a) Has been fixed by the Constitution
(b) Has been fixed the Parliament under Representation of People's Act, 1950
(c) Is determined by the Prime Minister Keeping in view the
requirement of the time (d) Is determined by the President.
32. The Advisory Powers of the Supreme Court of India imply that
(a) It renders advice to the Government of India on all constitutional matters
(b) It renders advice to the Prime Ministers on legal matters
(c) It renders advice to the President on question of law or fact
which is of public importance
(d) It has power to render advice to all the above persons.
33. The provision under which the Supreme Court can grant 'special
leave' to appeal against decisions of lower courts and tribunals is
contained in
(a) Section 10 of Supreme Court Rules
(b) Article 136 of Indian Constitution
(c) Article 226 of Indian Constitution
(d) Article 139 of Indian Constitution.
34. One of the following statements was not among the Simon
Commission's recommendations:
(a) Dyarchy to be abolished in the Provinces
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Legislature
(c) Establishment of the Provincial Public Service Commission for all Provinces
(d) Indian Council is not needed to advice the Secretary of State for India.
35. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of
India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
36. There were …… Articles and ….. Schedules in the draft of the
Constitution of India.
(a) 315, eight
(b) 319, nine
(c) 327, ten
(d) 317 nine.
37. Almost all political parties participated and contributed their
share in the formation of Indian Constitution. Which one of the
following party was not associated with the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Communist Party of in India
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Hindu Mahasabha
(d) Scheduled Castes Freedom.
38. The expenditure from the consolidated Fund of India for which the
approval of Parliament is not necessary, according to the Constitution
of India, is called
(a) Charged Expenditure
(b) Extra Expenditure
(c) Special Provision Fund
(d) None of these.
39. Proclamation of Emergency on the ground of internal disturbance
was, for the first time made in
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c)1974
(d) 1975
40. Which one of the following conditions regarding acquisitions of
citizenship by naturalization has been wrongly listed?
(a) He belongs to a country where citizens of India are permitted to
acquire citizenship by naturalization
(b) He has been residing in India or serving the Government of India
for at least 10 years preceding the date of application
(c) He possesses workable knowledge of an Indian language
(d) He has consistently supported the Indian cause at various national
and international forums.
41. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Right to Private Property was incorporated in the Constitution
by the Forty-Second Amendment
(b) The Right to Private Property was granted by the original
Constitution but it has since been removed from the list of
Fundamental Rights
(c) The Right to Private Property was never a Fundamental Right, under
the Indian Constitution
(d) The Right to Private Property which was granted by the original
Constitution has been made more sacrosanct by the Forty-Forth
Amendment.
42. Which one of the following Directive Principles is non-Gandhian?
(a) Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas
(b) Prohibition of the use of intoxicants except for medicinal purposes
(c) Prevention of slaughter of cow, calves and other milch cattle
(d) Provision of free and compulsory education for all the children up
to the age of fourteen years.
43. Which one of the following steps cannot be taken by the President
during the Financial Emergency?
(a) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such
canons of financial propriety as the he deems desirable
(b) He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens
(c) He can order reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil servants.
(d) he can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court
and High Court judges.
44. How amny members are required to support the introduction of a
No-Confidence Motion in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Two-thirds of the membership of the House
(b) 50 members
(c) 80 members
(d) 60 members.
45.The decision of a High Court is
(a) Binding on other High Courts
(b) Not binding on other High Courts
(c) Occasionally binding on other High Courts
(d) Of no value for other High Courts.
46. The Supreme Court in its judgment held that non-payment of minimum
wages is a type of forced labour.
(a) Asiad Workers case
(b) Minerva Mills case
(c) Lokhandwala Mills case
(d) T. Krishnamachari case.
47. with the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can continue for
(b) a maximum period or three years
(b) a maximum period of one year
(c) an indefinite period
(d) a maximum period of six months
48. Choose the correct statement:
(a) a person should not be punished more than once for the same offence
(b) a person should be punished more than once for the same offence
(c) a man may be put twice in peril for the same offence
(d) a man may commit the same offence twice but will get punishment once only.
49. "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly". This
statement epitomizes the doctrine of
(a) pith and substance
(b) implied powers
(c) ancillary powers
(d) colourable legislation.
50. The 39th Amendment laid that election of any person to Lok Sabha
holding the office of Prime Minister cannot be challenged before a
Court or Law, but only before an authority established by parliament.
This was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in
(a) Keshvannada Bharti Case
(b) Maneka Gandhi Case
(c) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain Case
(d) None of the above.
51. The Janata Party Government of Morarjee Desai constituted…. to
find out the truth about Indira Gandhi committed by the Indira Gandhi
Government during emergency (1975-77)
(a) Shahbano Commission
(b) Jagmohan Commission
(c) Shah Commission
(d) Nayyar Commission.
52. Public holidays are declared under
(a) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
(b) Contract Act, 1872
(c) Public Employees' Act, 1967
(d) None of the above
53. The expressions 'Secular' and 'Socialist' were inserted in the
Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
(a) Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
(b) Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985
(c) Constitution (38th Amendment) Act, 1975
(d) Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
54. Which of the following provisions deals with the 'Fundamental Duties'?
(a) 51A
(b) 39 A
(c) 21 A
(d) 31 A
55. The Part III of the Constitution deals with
(a) Emergency Provisions
(b) Fundamental Rights.
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy.
56. Which of the following writs can be issued by the Supreme Court to
free a person from an illegal detention?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Prohibition
57. Who has the power to legislate on the matters in the 'Concurrent List'?
(a) Parliament only
(b) State Legislatures only
(c) Both Parliament and State Legislatures
(d) President of India only.
58. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution is
applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 365
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 370.
59. What is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 238
(b) 250
(c) 225
(d) 252.
60. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(d) Right to Religion.
61. A particular village is suffering due to the pollution caused by
one of the industries located at its outskirts. The water in the
village lake has become unfit for drinking and foul smell is
constantly emitted from the chimneys of the industry. The villagers
want to petition the Supreme Court. They can do so for the violation
of which of the following rights?
(a) Right to livelihood
(b) Right to development
(c) Right to clean and healthy environment
(d) Right against exploitation.
62. The meaning of the term "quasi" is
(a) As if it were
(b) Null
(c) Void
(d) Quashed.
63. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether
a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha
and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for
re-consideration.
64. The new article, 21A, that has been inserted into the Constitution
guarantees
(a) Rights to primary education
(b) Right to professional education
(c) Right to die
(d) Right to livelihood.
65. The Comptroller and Auditor-General is appointed
(a) By the President by a warrant under his hand and seal
(b) By the Parliament by a legislation
(c) By the Finance Minister on behalf of the President
(d) By the Prime Minister.
66. The judge of the High Court is appointed by
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) The President under his seal and warrant
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief Minister
67. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty as per the
provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and
institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideas which inspired our national
struggle for freedom
(c) To join the defence forces of India
(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do to.
68. Indian Parliament is based on the principle of
(a) Bicameralism
(b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Dyarchy
(d) Federalism.
69. Supreme Court held that Preamble as a basic feature of
Constitution cannot be amended in the case of
(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of Inida
(d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State Kerala.
70. Who have constitutional right to audience in all Indian Courts?
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Attorney-General
(d) Solicitor-General.
71. Which of the following is not included in the Preamble to the Constitution?
(a) Morality
(b) Justice
(c) Sovereign
(d) Socialist.
72. 'Court of Record' is a Court which
(a) Maintains records
(b) Preserves all its records
(c) Can punish for its contempt
(d) Is competent to issue writs.
73. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of
(a) Gross inefficiency
(b) Delivering wrong judgments
(c) Senility
(d) Proven misbehavior or incapacity.
74. The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) U.S.S.R
(b) U.K.
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Switzerland.
75. The Constitution of India was adopted on
(a) 26th November, 1949
(b) 26th January, 1950
(c) 26th November, 1947
(d) 26th January, 1949.
76. Which one of the following writs can be issued by the Supreme
Court to order Government Authority to perform its statutory duty?
(a) Quo Warranto
(b) Prohibition
(c) Habeas Corpus
(d) Mandamus
77. Who among the following enunciated the 'doctrine of Rule of Law'?
(a) Ronald Dworkin
(b) Salmond
(c) A.V. Dicey
(d) John Austin.
78. Preamble to the Constitution of India reads as
(a) We, the members of the Constitution Assembly adopt, enact and give
ourselves this Constitution
(b) We, the citizens of India adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution
(c) We, the people of India in our Constituent Assembly adopt, enact
and give to ourselves this Constitution
(d) We, the people of India adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution.
79. Which one of the following features of the Constitution of India
is borrowed from United Kingdom?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Parliamentary type of Government
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Emergency Provisions
80. A Money Bill can be introduced in
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(d) Joint session of both the Houses of Parliament.
81. The Main object of Fundamental Rights is to ensure
(a) Independence of Judiciary
(b) Individual rights absolutely
(c) Individual rights subject to reasonable restrictions
(d) A socialistic pattern of society.
82. The Parliament of India consists of
(a) House of People (Lok Sabha), Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and
President of India
(b) House of People (Lok Sabha) and Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
(c) Presedent of India and House of People
(d) Only House of People (Lok Sabha) and various officials.
83. President of India can make laws during recess of Parliament through
(a) States
(b) Ordinances
(c) Bills
(d) Notifications.
84. Which one of the following rights is a constitutional right and
not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom of expression
(b) Right to freedom of religion
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to move freely
In each of the question numbers 85 to 88 two words are paired which
have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute
question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word
given after double colon (::)
85.Constituent Assembly : Constitution :: Parliament : ?
(a) Statute
(b) Legislative bills
(c) Speaker
(d) Prime Minister
86. President of India : 35 :: Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha) : ?
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 25
(d) 30
87. India : Parliamentary System :: U.S.A. :?
(a) Democratic System
(b) Presidential System
(c) Federal System
(d) Republican System
88. Executive : President :: Judiciary : ?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Constitution
(d) Gov. of India
89. Under 'Article, 19(1) All citizens shall have the right, (a) to
freedom of speech and expression' which comprises of
(a) Right to propagate one's views through movies
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Telephone tapping by the Government on the order of the court
(d) All the above.
90. 'The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system
promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in
particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes
or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice
are not dented to any citizen by reason of economic or other
disabilities.' This principle aims at
(a) Operation of the legal system
(b) Equal justice and free legal aid
(c) Schemes for securing justice
(d) Securing justice to citizens
91. Which of the following qualification is required to be elected as
the President of India?
(a) Should be a citizen of India
(b) Should have completed the age of thirty-five years
(c) Should be qualified for election as a member of the House of the people
(d) All of the above
92. Statement (1): Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with
respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State
List.
Statement (2): Such power shall include the power of making any law
imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists.
The above concludes that―
(a) Parliament has exclusive power to make laws.
(b) Parliament has residuary power to make laws
(c) Parliament has conclusive power to make laws
(d) Parliament is the only law making authority in India.
93.Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution?
(a) Presidential type of Government
(b) Independence of Judiciary
(c) Federal Government
(d) Republican form of Government.
94. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right in India?
(a) Right to Vote
(b) Protection against Self-incrimination
(c) Right to Free and Compulsory Education up to age of 14 years
(d) Protection against Ex Post Facto Laws
95. Which one of the following rights cannot be suspended during
National Emergency?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(c) Freedom of Religion
(d) Freedom of Speech and Expression.
96. The basic human rights in India are contained in
(a) The Human Rights Code of India
(b) The National Human Rights Commission of India
(c) The Human Rights Courts of India
(d) The Constitution of India
97. What is minimum duration of stay essential before a person can
apply for citizenship of India?
(a) Five years
(b) Seven years
(c) Nine years
(d) Twelve years
98. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by
(a) State Legislature
(b) President
(c) Central Government
(d) Parliament
99. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(a) Have been specified by the Presidential Orders issued in
consultation with the Government of the respective States
(b) have been specified in the Constitution by the Constitution makers
in the form of a Schedule
(c) have to be specified and notified by the Parliament after detailed
discussions about the backward nature of these people
(d) are the Castes and Tribes notified by the State Government after
detailed discussion as to their socio-economic conditions.
100.Free legal aid for an accused is a
(a) Fundamental right
(b) Fundamental duty of the State
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Discretion of the State
101. The concept of Secular State is that the State will not make any
discrimination on the ground of religion, caste or community against
any person professing any particular form of religious faith. The
Secularism is embodied in
(a) Preamble of Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Judicial Interpretation of Fundamental Right
102.The National Development Council consists of
(a) Members of Planning Commission
(b) Cabinet Ministers and State Chief Ministers
(c) Representatives of Union Territories
(d) All of the above.
103. Who allocates portfolios among the Ministers?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(d) Chairperson of Ruling Political Party.
104.Which Indian language is given the status of 'Classical language'
by the Central Government?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Telugu
(c) Tamil
(d) Pali.
105. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of
(a) The Deputy Speaker of the Lak Sabha
(b) The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
(c) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) The Deputy Prime Minister.
106. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India of High Court of any State
can be removed by the President of India only
(a) when the Principles of Natural Justice are followed and the
alleged misconduct is proved in an impartial enquiry
(b) if he is satisfied through the report made by the Chief Justice of
India that the misconduct of the judge has been proved
(c) when an address is made by both the Houses of Parliament in the
same session asking for his/her removal on the grounds of proven
misbehavior and incapacity
(d) when the President and the Prime Minister are satisfied that he or
she has committed a misconduct and the same has been proved before a
competent authority
107.The Constitution of India is the result of considerable imitation
and adaptation rather than originality because
(a) Makers of Indian Constitution drew much from the American
Constitution, Canadian Constitution and British made Government of
India Act, 1935
(b) Makers of Indian constitutions drew much from Swiss Constitution
and Government of India Act of 1919
(c) Makers of Indian Constitution of Sri Lanka and Government of India
Act of 1919
(d) Makers of Indian Constitution drew from Constitution of South
Africa, Constitution of Netherlands and Government of India Act of
1919.
108. For transfer of accused person from a foreign State of India for
any offence within India or relating to India is done
(a) by previous repatriation agreement between India and concerned
foreign country
(b) by instant repatriation agreement between India and concerned
foreign country
(c) at the desire of ambassador representing India in concerned foreign country
(d) at the desire of the ambassador who represents concerned foreign
country in India
109.Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is certified by the …. and
his decision is conclusive
(a) President
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chairman of Public Accounts Committee
110. …… seats are reserved in all Panchayats at all levels for women
(a) One-fourth
(b) One-third
(c) One-half
(d) Two-third
111. A seat of an M.P. can be declared vacant a continuous period of
(a) Six months
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) One year.
112.What is true with Members of Parliament's immunity from arrest?
(a) In civil cases while the Legislature is in Session, for 40 days
before and after and in criminal cases no arrest during Parliament
Session
(b) In civil cases, while Legislature is in Session and for 40 days
before and after and in criminal cases arrest can be made at any time
(c) In civil cases while the Legislature is in Session, for 20 days
before and after and in criminal cases no arrest during Parliament
Session
(d) In civil cases, while Legislature is in Session for 20 days before
and after and in criminal cases arrest can be made at any time.
113.The maximum duration of the zero hour in Lok Sabha can be
(a) One hour
(b) Unspecified
(c) 30 minutes
(d) Two hours.
114.Dealing with the chapter of citizenship under the Constitution,
the Supreme Court has held that Sonia Gandhi, the President of
Congress (I) is not an Italian citizen, but is an Indian citizen
because she is government by
(a) Article 10, Constitution of India
(b) Article 11, Constitution of India
(c) The Citizenship Act, 1955
(d) Article 5, Constitution of India
115. What is true with appointment of Attorney General for India?
(a) He can be appointed by President of India and is qualified to be
appointed a Judge of Supreme Court
(b) He can appointed by President of India and is qualified to be
appointed a Judge of High Court
(c) He can be appointed by a Special Commission and is qualified to be
appointed as Law Minister
(d) He can be appointed by Chief appointed of India and Is qualified
to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court.
116. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the
Objectives Resolution?
I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly
II. It called for just right for minorities
III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) Only III
117.The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to
(a) only the citizen of India
(b) all persons in case of information of any fundamental right
(c) any person for enforcing any rights conferred on them
(d) an aggrieved individual alone.
118. Money bills can be introduced in the State Legislature with the
prior consent of the
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief Minister
119. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the State Government
(a) cannot legislate
(b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List
(c) can legislate on the subjects in the State List
(d) is suspended.
120. A political party is recognized by the Election Commission only if
I. it has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period
of five years
II. has returned at least one member of the Lok Sabha for every 25
members of that House or any fraction of that number elected from that
State
III. has polled not less than six per cent of the total number of
valid votes polled by all contesting candidates at the general
elections
IV. has contested elections in four or more states in three
consecutive general elections
(a) I and II
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I,II,III and IV.
121. Electioneering has to stop in a constituency
(a) one day before the election
(b) 48 hours before election starts
(c) 36 hours before a poll commences
(d) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling.
Instructions (122 to 128): Each of the next seven questions consists
of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion' (A) and other as
'Reason' (R) You are to examine these two statements carefully and
select the correct answers.
122. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949.
Reason (R): Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
123. Assertion (A): The State shall not make any law, which takes away
or abridges the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Right) and
any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of
the contravention, be void.
Reason (R): The fundamental rights are the rights reserved by the
people and for this reason they are eternal and sacrosanct.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
124.Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy contained in
Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles
therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of
the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these
principles in making laws.
Reason (R):Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Right
are both complementary to each other but in case of any controversy
fundamental rights will prevail.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
125. Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or
language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.
Reason (R) : Institutions established by the minorities are not
entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation
to give aid.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
126. Assertion (A): The right to move the Supreme Court under Article
32 of the Constitution by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement
of the fundamental rights is guaranteed as a fundamental right.
Reason (R): Supreme Court of India has been appointed as the guardian
of the Constitution.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
127. Assertion (A): If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha is not
passed in the stipulated period, the budget proposals are not
affected.
Reason (R): The Lok Sabha is more powerful, in financial matters, than
the Rajya Sabha.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
128. Assertion (A): Freedom of Speech is the most important civil
liberty of people in a democratic polity.
Reason (R): State can regulate free speech in the interest of public order.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
129. The following are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India
I. Equality of status and of opportunity
II. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
III. Justice-social, economic and political
IV. Fraternity assuring are dignity of the individual
V. Unity and Integrity of the nation
(a) V-I-II-IV-III
(b) III-II-I-IV-V
(c) III-I-II-V-IV
(d) I-II-IV-III-V
130. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Right to free and compulsory education for all children of the age of
6 to 14 years is:
(a) a fundamental right enforceable in law
(b) a fundamental duty
(c) a directive principle of state policy
(d) a fundamental right which, however, can be enabling legislation
131. Affirmative action connotes:
I. Measures taken by the state to help the socially disadvantaged groups
II. Positive discrimination
III. Strict quotas for the socially and educationally backward class
in school/college admissions and jobs.
Which of the above mentioned is true?
(a) I and II only
(b) II only
(c) I,II and III
(d) II and III only
132. Identify the correct statement
(a) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a
division of powers between a central and a number of regional
authorities
(b) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a
division of powers between Legislature, Executives and Judiciary
(c) Federalism implies a system of Government which embodies
Parliamentary supremacy
(d) None of these.
133. Consider the following statements
I. In a recent Supreme Court verdict pronounced by Justice Markandeya
Katju and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra, the court upheld the
constitutionality of the Haj subsidy
II. Muslims are not the only beneficiaries of the secular State's
generosity. Hindus have also received substantial financial support
from the Government
With reference to the statements mentioned above, which of the
following is correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II.
134. Match schedule one and two and choose the appropriate answer
Schedule I Schedule II
i. Concurrent list 1.Constitution of Japan
ii. Rule of Law 2. Constitution of Ireland
iii. Directive Principle of State Policy 3. British Constitution
iv. Procedure established by law 4. Constitution
of Australia
i ii iii iv
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
135.Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any
trade and profession
(c) Right to equality includes the principles of natural justice
(d) Freedom of conscience includes the wearing and carrying of kirpans
by the Sikhs.
136. The Right to Equality is guaranteed by
(a) Article 14 to 18
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 14 and 15
(d) Article 14, 15 and 16.
137. Match the Schedule I and II and choose the appropriate answer
Schedule I Schedule II
i. Republic 1. Head of the State is elected by the people
ii. Secular 2. State does not recognize any religion as
religion of the State
iii. Democracy 3. The government which gets authority from the will
of the people
i ii iii
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 1 3 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 1
138. In which of the following cases can a Constitutional amendment be
passed just by a simple majority in Parliament?
(a) Election matters
(b) Change in the name and boundaries of States
(c) Powers of the President
(d) None of the above.
139. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive
Principles in Part IV of the Constitution of India?
(I) Equal pay for equal work
(II) Uniform Civil Code
(III) Small family norm
(IV) Education through mother tongue at primary level
(a) I,II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and IV
140. Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any
disqualification?
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Election Commissioner
(d) None of the above
141. Regarding No-Confidence Motion
(a) it is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers
(b) no grounds have to be set out for the motion
(c) not less than 100 members have to support it for the Speaker to
grant leave for its introduction
(d) it is always brought against the Prime Minister
142. Who is responsible for the registration of voters in India?
(a) Government
(b) Votes
(c) Political parties
(d) Election Commission
143. Which of the following rights is not available to the citizens of
India under Article 21 of the Constitution?
(a) Right to Privacy
(b) Right to Die
(c) Right to Health and Medical Assistance
(d) Right to Get Pollution free Water and Air
144. The Constitution (One Hundred Seventeenth Amendment) Bill, 2012
makes provisions regarding:
(a) Reservation in matters of promotions for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes
(b) Reservation in matters of appointments for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes
(c) Reservation in matters of appointments and promotions for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(d) None of the above.
145. The number of High Court in India is:
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 21
(d) 28.
146. The chairman of Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the
Constituent Assembly was:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) J.B. Kripalani.
147. The Environment Protection Act was passed by the Parliament of
India in the year:
(a) 1976
(b) 1986
(c) 1996
(d) 2006
148.How many members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 12
(d) 16.
149.Who among the following was the first Law minister of India
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(d) T. Krishnamachari
150.In India, Uniform Civil Code is applicable in the State of:
(a) Goa
(b) Nagaland
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Maharashtra.
151. How many duties are provided under Part IV A of the Constitution?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 8
152. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) State Public Service Commissions
(c) Election Commission
(d) Planning Commission
153.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about Fundamental
Duties under the Constitution of India? It shall be the duty of every
citizen of India―
(a) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(b) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and
collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher
levels of Endeavour and achievement.
(c) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education
to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and
fourteen years.
(d) To vote in public elections.
154. Which one of following offices is held during the pleasure of the
President of India?
(a) Vice-President
(b) Governor of a State
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
ANSWERS:
1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(c)
6.(c) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(b)
11.(d) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(b)
16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(c) 20.(d)
21.(b) 22.(d) 23.(d) 24.(d) 25.(a)
26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(b) 29.(b) 30.(c)
31.(c) 32.(c) 33.(b) 34.(d) 35.(d)
36.(a) 37.(d) 38.(d) 39.(d) 40.(c)
41.(b) 42.(d) 43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(b)
46.(d) 47.(d) 48.(a) 49.(d) 50.(c)
51.(c) 52.(a) 53.(d) 54.(a) 55.(b)
56.(a) 57.(c) 58.(d) 59.(d) 60.(b)
61.(c) 62.(a) 63.(a) 64.(a) 65.(a)
66.(b) 67.(c) 68.(a) 69.(d) 70.(c)
71.(a) 72.(c) 73.(d) 74.(c) 75.(a)
76.(d) 77.(c) 78.(c) 79.(b) 80.(a)
81.(c) 82.(a) 83.(b) 84.(c) 85.(a)
86.(d) 87.(b) 88.(b) 89.(a) 90.(b)
91.(d) 92.(b) 93.(a) 94.(a) 95.(b)
96.(d) 97.(a) 98.(a) 99.(a) 100.(c)
101.(a) 102.(d) 103.(c) 104.(c) 105.(d)
106.(c) 107.(a) 108.(a) 109.(c) 110.(b)
111.(b) 112.(b) 113.(b) 114.(c) 115.(a)
116.(c) 117.(b) 118.(b) 119.(c) 120.(c)
121(d) 122.(b) 123.(a) 124.(a) 125.(c)
126.(a) 127.(d) 128.(a) 129.(b) 130.(d)
131.(c) 132.(a) 133.(c) 134.(d) 135.(b)
136.(a) 137.(a) 138.(d) 139.(b) 140.(a)
141.(b) 142.(d) 143.(b) 144.(a) 145.(b)
146.(d) 147.(b) 148.(c) 149.(c) 150.(a)
151.(b) 152.(d) 153.(d) 154.(b)
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